Wednesday, April 06, 2005

Selling what one does not have

Question: If we buy items before giving a bill to our client, i.e. a client orders some goods, we buy them, and only then we give him a bill. After that pays us. Will it be permissible?

Answer: if it is merely an order, and not a sales agreement, then it is allowed, because you are not selling something you do not have.